Math, asked by pardyamannom, 1 year ago

How can the multiplicative inverse of 'a' to the power '-m' be 'a' to the power 'm'?

Answers

Answered by Rashmi10400
10
Multiplicative inverse of 'a' to the power '-n' is 1/aⁿ.
Multiplicative inverse of 'a' to the power 'n' is 1/a⁻ⁿ.
Similar questions