French, asked by rupeshrkb6763, 1 year ago

How did the french people attribatry get right to vote to all the citizens?

Answers

Answered by surindersinghbsht
0

French women obtained the right to vote only on April 21, 1944!

The Provisional Government of General Charles de Gaulle, then based in Algiers, passed the order to reward the French women for their role during WWII.

The order established that "women are eligible voters and under the same terms as men".

It was definitively adopted in the French constitution on October 27, 1946 and states that “the law guarantees women equal rights to those of men in all spheres”.

It sounds a bit patronizing, but this allowed women to become fully emancipated, as until then they were dependent on their husbands.

As a result, many politicians became worried.

They indeed considered that this 'unknown electorate', which then represented 55% of the population, could drastically change the balance of power with their votes.

Despite this victory, many women didn't vote (yet)!

Those who did, however, were able to cast their first vote for the municipal elections of April 29, 1945.

Answered by dayabhuwan
0

Answer:

In the summer of 1792, the Jacobins planned an insurrection of a large number of Parisians who were angered by the short supply and high prices of food. On the morning of August 10, they stormed the palace of Tuileries, massacred the king’s guards and held the king hostage for several hours. Later the Assembly voted to imprison the royal family. Elections were held. From now on, all men of 21 years and above regardless of wealth, got the right to vote.

Similar questions