French, asked by NaveenTannu, 11 months ago

how did the french people ultimately get the right to vete to all citizens​

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Answered by snehasunil26
1

Answer:

In the summer of 1792, the Jacobins planned an insurrection of a large number of Parisians who were angered by the short supply and high prices of food. On the morning of August 10, they stormed the palace of Tuileries, massacred the king’s guards and held the king hostage for several hours. Later the Assembly voted to imprison the royal family. Elections were held. From now on, all men of 21 years and above regardless of wealth, got the right to vote


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Answered by ma129
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