Question

how do you prove k=1 in F=kma?

Answer 1

THERE IS A PRACTICAL THEORY WHICH PROVES IT BUT TO PROVE IT SIMPLY
WE TAKE AN INSTRUMENT WHICH CAN MEASURE FOURCE LET IT = F

THEN AS
F = KMA
WE ARE ABLE TO SEE THAT
MA = F
THEN
MA ×1 = F
HENCE FROM ABOVE
K = 1
HOPE IT HELPS