Social Sciences, asked by nandhur1408, 6 months ago

how far does economic inequalities exist in democracies?​

Answers

Answered by Anonymous
15

Answer:

Inequality is achieved through the competition of labor for jobs where compensation is incapable of supporting a living. This results in far ...

Explanation:

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Answered by rushikeshphapale4
0

Answer:

Inequality is achieved through the competition of labor for jobs where compensation is incapable of supporting a living. This results in far too many people needing more than one and thus competing for far too few jobs.

Recall slaves had jobs. So with no govt. sanctioned right to freely yes, freely organize labor to have some power to withhold services to seek a living wage…from one job…one gets inequality.

Inequality is tremendously aided by a federal tax code that enjoys a tax rate on income from capital investment at 20% (just up from 15%) at the same rate at a carpenter. ($33,000/yr.) Stock dividends also enjoy an illogical and useless federal tax favor of 20%…also just recently up from 15%.

There are no facts or extrapolation of fact to justify why Warren buffet for just one, to receive $140 million per quarter in stock dividends from Coke Cola, taxed at 20% and only a little over 1/2 the rate that his secretary pays. This allows that and all thus untaxed income to be reinvested and again and yes…at the 20% tax rate.

Two ideas creating and increasing inequality.

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