Physics, asked by babumoolanchalakudy, 8 months ago

How mechanical advantage related to velocity ratio for

(1)Anidealmachine (2)apracticalmachine​

Answers

Answered by Tagoreharivardhan
1

Explanation:

A simple machine, such as a lever, pulley, or gear train, is "ideal" if the power input is equal to the power output of the device, which means there are no losses. In this case, the mechanical efficiency is 100%

.

(i) The efficiency of an ideal machine (free from friction etc) is equal to 1. But in actual practical, the efficiency is less than 1 due to the energy loss in friction.

(ii) A single machine cannot act as a force multiplier and a speed multiplier at the same time.

(i) The efficiency of an ideal machine (free from friction etc) is equal to 1. But in actual practical, the efficiency is less than 1 due to the energy loss in friction.

(ii) A single machine cannot act as a force multiplier and a speed multiplier at the same time.

from this any point u can write

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Answered by Anonymous
2

Answer:

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