how to prove question ?
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Step-by-step explanation:
I am assuming @= phi
1i) (sin @ - cos@)^2
= sin^2@+cos^2@-2sin@cos@
= 1-2sin@cos@ [sin^2 theta+cos^2 theta =1]
1ii) (sin @ × tan@/2)/2
Now sin theta can be written as (2tan@/2)/1+tan^2@/2
Therefore,
(2tan@/2)(tan@/2)/(1+tan^2@/2)2
= (tan^2@/2) / (1+tan^@/2)
Now converet tan@/2 in terms of(sin@/2)/(cos@/2)
and solve you will get the required answer
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