Math, asked by lalhem17, 6 months ago

how to prove question ?​

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Answered by divyanshparekh
0

Step-by-step explanation:

I am assuming @= phi

1i) (sin @ - cos@)^2

= sin^2@+cos^2@-2sin@cos@

= 1-2sin@cos@ [sin^2 theta+cos^2 theta =1]

1ii) (sin @ × tan@/2)/2

Now sin theta can be written as (2tan@/2)/1+tan^2@/2

Therefore,

(2tan@/2)(tan@/2)/(1+tan^2@/2)2

= (tan^2@/2) / (1+tan^@/2)

Now converet tan@/2 in terms of(sin@/2)/(cos@/2)

and solve you will get the required answer

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