Math, asked by clarkfirth72, 11 months ago

how to solve this type of integration​

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Answered by IamIronMan0
0

Answer:

 \frac{\pi}{32}

Step-by-step explanation:

 \int _{0}^{1}\:  {x}^{2} (1 -  {x}^{2} ) {}^{ \frac{3}{2} } dx

Put x = sin y

dx = cos y dy

limit 0 to π/2

New integral

 \int _{0}^ \frac{\pi}{2} {} \:  \sin {}^{2} (y) (1 -  \sin {}^{2} (y) ) {}^{ \frac{3}{2} }  \cos(y) dy \\ \int _{0}^ \frac{\pi}{2} {} \:  \sin {}^{2} (y)  \cos {}^{4} (y) dy

Which is well known form . using Formula for this

( if you don't know search on internet sin^mx.cos^nx integral )

 =  \frac{(1)(3 \times 1)}{6 \times 4 \times 2} \times   \frac{\pi}{2}  =  \frac{\pi}{32}

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