English, asked by bisma1243, 8 months ago

how would this contrast with an experienced viewpoint/a Romantic view of The Industrial Revolution? What might Blake think about the changes in Britain?

Answers

Answered by shaurya1527
1

Explanation:

An Industrial Revolution is an historical process in which scientific and

technological knowledge is systematically harnessed to production. It is a

process which increases the productivity of the society in which it occurs to

degrees unprecedented in its history. Once adopted it is extended infinitely,

ushering in an age in which continuous, if uneven, revolutionisation of

productive techniques is the norm. The first Industrial Revolution occurred in

Britain in the 1780’s; as for any historical phenomenon an interpretation of its

genesis must elucidate a unique constellation of factors which made it possible.’

The precondition for the Industrial Revolution was a well-developed capitalist

economic system-that is, by 1770 a pre-industrial capitalist economy was far

enough evolved to consider Britain a capitalist socio-economic formation. A

manufacturing class of entrepreneurs was free to deploy capital, set up factories

and use technological innovations in whatever ways might maximise profits from

production. At the same time a state apparatus existed which represented the

interests, and was motivated by the economic principles of, the manufacturing

and commercial classes. This state, with a strong Navy, was committed to foreign

policies orientated towards securing raw materials and potential markets. At the

same time, the increase in population in eighteenth century Britain, and a slight

rise in the average standard of living, supplied a minimal domestic market for the

first mass-produced goods. Other necessary conditions for the first Industrial

Revolution may have included the small size of Britain: in an age when the

transportation of goods twenty miles overland could double their cost, there

could be little chance of a first Industrial Revolution in a land-locked area.

But the overriding point is that the mode of production in Britain was

capitalist: the Industrial Revolution occurred as a logical process, given certain

scientific knowledge, in a kind of economy in which the maximisation of

individual entrepreneurs’ profit was unfettered. For the first time in history, a

manufacturing class had the power to implement technological innovations

systematically in production and was able to obtain higher profits by so doing.

This is not to say that a bourgeoisie held political power directly in 1770. In fact,

the centuries-long transition from a feudal to a capitalist mode of production in

Britian was not accompanied by the simple ascendence of one class and the

decline of another. From the Tudor period onwards, the land-owning nobility

showed a strong tendency to commercialise agriculture; the backing of a

monarchy in need of money allowed land-owners to enclose their own land and

the traditional commons of the peasantry and turn them over to commercial

production-mainly of wool-for an export market. From the middle of the

eighteenth century this process was carried out through Parliamentary Enclosure

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Answered by wesjohn89
0

Answer:

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