Question

I have approached this question as follows:-


$f = \frac{ \omega}{2\pi} = \frac{v}{2\pi \: r}$
$v = 2\pi \: rf$
Squaring and multiplying by m on both sides,

$mv^{2} = m4 {\pi}^{2} {r}^{2} {f}^{2}$
Dividing b.s by r,

$\frac{m {v}^{2} }{r} = m4 {\pi}^{2} r {f}^{2}$
Therefore force is proportional to r.

Am I correct???
​

Answer 1

Answer:

yes yes yes yes

Step-by-step explanation:

your

answer

Is

correct