Physics, asked by iamshroud263, 9 months ago

I have attached my question in picture pls solve it I will mark u brainliest​

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Answers

Answered by maddagowthamreddy
0

1:1is the answer

because the

t = 2\pi \div w \times \frac{?}{?}

Answered by rocky200216
4

\large\sf{\underbrace{\red{SOLUTION:-}}}

GIVEN :-

  • Both the particles complete on the circle in the same time ‘t’ .

CALCULATION :-

✴️ we have know that,

\bigstar\:\rm{\purple{\boxed{Angular\:speed\:(\omega)\:=\:\dfrac{2\pi}{t}\:}}}

▼ Now,

  • \rm{\omega_{1}\:=\:\dfrac{2\pi}{t}\:}

  • \rm{\omega_{2}\:=\:\dfrac{2\pi}{t}\:}

☞ Therefore, the ratio of Angular speed of the 1st to that of 2nd is,

\rm{\implies\:\dfrac{\omega_{1}}{\omega_{2}}\:=\:\dfrac{\dfrac{2\pi}{t}}{\dfrac{2\pi}{t}}\:}

\rm{\boxed{\implies\:\dfrac{\omega_{1}}{\omega_{2}}\:=\:\dfrac{1}{1}}}

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