I need a model of billiard ball migration
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Is the "Billiard-Ball" theory of the barbarian migrations of Antiquity essentially correct? This rather simplistically states that movements of barbarian tribes westwards along the Eurasian Steppe were primarily caused by other barbarian groups caroming into them, billiard-ball like, from the east. Can this be extended to its logical conclusion that, if the Xiongnu had defeated the Han in the late first and early second centuries and poured into China, the migrating barbarian tribes of the 3rd-5th centuries, such as the Goths and Huns, would not have reached the Mediterranean.
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