Math, asked by chaitanyax007, 4 days ago

If 1 2 (sin ) y x − = , show that 2 2 2 1 (1 ) (2 1) 0 n n n x y n xy​

Answers

Answered by 12949goel
0

Answer:

We have y = sin–1x

then image ,

By Leibnitz theorem,

we get,

(1 – x2)yn+2 – 2(n + 1)xyn+1 – n(n – 1)yn – xyn+1 – nyn = 0

⇒ (1 – x2)yn+2 – (2n + 1)xyn+1 – n2yn = 0

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