If 1 2 (sin ) y x − = , show that 2 2 2 1 (1 ) (2 1) 0 n n n x y n xy
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Answer:
We have y = sin–1x
then image ,
By Leibnitz theorem,
we get,
(1 – x2)yn+2 – 2(n + 1)xyn+1 – n(n – 1)yn – xyn+1 – nyn = 0
⇒ (1 – x2)yn+2 – (2n + 1)xyn+1 – n2yn = 0
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