If 1/m+1/n+1/mn = 1, value of (m-1)(n-1) is
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Q:(m-1)(n-1)=mn-m-n+1
p:1/m+1/n+1/mn=1
m+n+1=mn
1=mn-m-n
p in Q
so you get 2
p:1/m+1/n+1/mn=1
m+n+1=mn
1=mn-m-n
p in Q
so you get 2
naveenbrainly:
how
explain plz
is that enough
no plz give brief explanation
u r not satisfied ?
u just take LCM
how 2 is the answer
see mn - m- n =1 proved from taking LCM . by substituting it in expansion of (m-1)(n-1) . u get 2
work it out once u will get it
mark it brainliest know pls . i havent gained the tittle even once
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