Math, asked by WHITEDEVIL5432, 8 months ago

If 1 m is equal to 39.37 inches, how many inches will be equal to 16 m?

Answers

Answered by wwwriddhipatel

2

Answer:

multiply 39.37 with 16 and you will get your ans

Answered by shashwat1971

1

1m = 39.37

16m = 16*39.37 = 629.92

Previous Question

Next Question

Similar questions

Math, 4 months ago

Ahmed purchased an old scooter for rs14625 and spent rs3225 on its repairs. Then , he sold it for rs16422 Find his gain or loss per cent.

English, 4 months ago

64/100×8924+?/100*5324=6828...

Chemistry, 4 months ago

Which of the following is termed as matter (a)air (b)sky (c)fire (d)all the above...

Accountancy, 8 months ago

The erection charges of machinery amounted 450...

English, 8 months ago

Convert into passive voice). she cut an apples...

Chemistry, 11 months ago

Molar mass of HNO3? A) 63 g/mol B) 53 g/mol C) 48 g/mol D) 52 g/mol...

Chemistry, 11 months ago

Milk is an example of a A) Emulsion B) Solution C) Gel D) Suspension...

Physics, 11 months ago

Which has a higher resistance a 50watt bulb or 25walt lamp bulb?