Math, asked by princesshrutz, 1 year ago

If 15% of (a+b)=25% of (a-b), then what percent of b is equal to a


princesshrutz: Plz do fast

Answers

Answered by thakuratul2897
20

Answer:


Step-by-step explanation:


Attachments:
Answered by mysticd
9

Answer:

 400\% \: of \: b = a

Step-by-step explanation:

Given \\15\% \:of \:(a+b)=25\% \: of \: (a-b)

\implies 15\% \times  (a+b)=25\% \times (a-b)

\implies \frac{15}{100} \times  (a+b)=\frac{25}{100} \times (a-b)

/* multiply both sides by 100, we get

\implies 15\times  (a+b)=25\times (a-b)

/* divide both sides by 5, we get

\implies 3(a+b)=5(a-b)

\implies 3a+3b=5a-5b

\implies 3b+5b=5a-3a

\implies 8b = 2a

\implies 2a = 8b

\implies a = 4b

\implies a = 400\% \:of \: b

Therefore,.

 400\% \: of \: b = a

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