Math, asked by psree1972, 4 months ago

If 2 (a^2+b^2)=(a+b)^2 then show that a/b=1​

Answers

Answered by asf7353567
0

Step-by-step explanation:

2(a²+b²)=(a+b)²

so, 2a²+2b²=a²+b²+2ab

or, 2a²+2b²–a²–b²–2ab=0

and, a²+b²–2ab=0

(a–b)²=0

a–b=0

a=b

a/b=b/b

a/b=1 (hence proved)

Answered by helper07525E
0

Step-by-step explanation:

2 (a+b) = (a+b)

2a2 + 2b2 = a 2 + 2ab +

b?

2ab + b 2

2a? - a? + 2b? - b 2 – 2ab = 0 =

a? + b? – 2ab = 0

+ b2

(a - b)2 = 0

a - b = 0

as (a + b)2 = a? +

as (a – b)? = a? – 2ab |

a = b

hence proved

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