Question

If (2 + sin x) dy/dx + (y + 1)cos x = 0 and y(0) = 1, then y(π/2) is equal to

1/3
-2/3
-1/3
4/3

Answer 1

Answer:

The correct option is A.

Explanation:

(2 + sin x)dy + cos x(y + 1)dx = 0

(y + 1)(2 + sin x) = C

(1 + 1)(2 + 0) = C = 4

(y + 1)(2 + sin x) = 4

Put x = π/2

⤇  y = 1/3

Answer 2

Answer:

Explanation:

The correct option is A.