Math, asked by Zaidpathan5152, 1 year ago

If (2 + sin x) \frac{dy}{dx} + (y + 1) cos x = 0 and y(0) = 1, then y  \bigg \lgroup \frac{\pi}{2}\bigg \rgroup is equal to :
(1) \frac{4}{3}
(2) \frac{1}{3}
(3) -\frac{2}{3}
(4) -\frac{1}{3}

Answers

Answered by brunoconti
0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

BRAINLIEST BRAINLIEST BRAINLIEST

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