Math, asked by HariniAnand, 11 months ago

if 4 to the power x 4 to the power x is equals to a to the power Y is equals to 16 ^ Z show that 2 by Y is equal to 1 by X + 1 by Z ​

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Answered by ihrishi
1

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: \:  {4}^{x}  =  {8}^{y}  =  {16}^{z}  \\  \implies \: {2}^{2x}  =  {2}^{3y}  =  {2}^{4z} \\ \implies \: 2x = 3y = 4z \\ \implies \: 2x = 3y \\ \implies \: x =  \frac{3y}{2}  \\ \implies \: 4z = 3y \\ \implies \: z =  \frac{3y}{4}  \\ now \\ RHS =  \frac{1}{x}  +  \frac{1}{z}  =  \frac{1}{ \frac{3y}{2} }  + \frac{1}{ \frac{3y}{4} }  \\  =  \frac{2}{3y}  +  \frac{4}{3y}  \\  =  \frac{2 + 4}{3y}  \\  =  \frac{6}{3y}  \\  =  \frac{2}{y}  \\= LHS \\ Thus \\ \frac{1}{x}  +  \frac{1}{z}  = \frac{2}{y}  \\or \\</p><p>\frac{2}{y}=\frac{1}{x}  +  \frac{1}{z}\\ Hence proved.

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