Math, asked by soumya7848, 1 day ago

If 40% of 4 by 5 of 3 by 4 of a number is 48 then what is the one percent of the same number

Answers

Answered by saumyarajansrivastav
0

Answer:

2

Step-by-step explanation:

40÷100×4÷5×3÷4×x=48

2÷5×3÷5×x=48

6÷25×x=48

x=48×25÷6

x=25×8

x=200

Now a/q

1% of x

1%of 200

1÷100×200

2

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