Math, asked by doreami9248, 11 months ago

If 40% of a=b then b% of 40 is the same as

Answers

Answered by D3VILCRUSAID3R18
0

(40/100)× a=b

(2/5)× a= b...........eq.1

b%of 40= (b/100)× 40

=((2/5)a/100)×40

=((200/5)a)× 40

= 40a × 40

= 1600a

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Answered by pinquancaro
2

b\% \text{ of } 40=16\% \text{ of } a

Step-by-step explanation:

Given : If 40% of a=b.

To find : b% of 40 is the same as ?

Solution :

40% of a=b

i.e. \frac{40}{100}\times a=b

0.4a=b

Now, b% of 40 is written as

b\% \text{ of } 40=\frac{b}{100}\times 40

Substitute the value of b,

b\% \text{ of } 40=\frac{0.4a}{100}\times 40

b\% \text{ of } 40=\frac{16a}{100}

b\% \text{ of } 40=16\% \text{ of } a

#Learn more

If 40%of (a+b)=60% of(a-b).Find the value of 2a-3b/a+b.

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