Math, asked by SanyaBhasin, 1 year ago

If 56 men can do a piece of work in 42 days. How many men will do it in 14 days?​

Answers

Answered by Anonymous
5

Answer: Number of men = 168

Step-by-step explanation:

56 men === 42 days === 1 work

56 men === 1 day ==== 1/42 work                

1 man === 1 day === 1/42*56 work       [No.of men inversely proportional to days]

1 man === 14 days ===  14/42*56 work

1 man == 1/3*56 work

1 man = 1/168 work in 14 days

168 men = 1 work in 14 days.

ALTERNATE:

For the same work,

M1 * D1 = M2 * D2

56*42 = M2 * 14

M2 = 56*42/14 = 168 men

Hence, number of men = 168

Answered by Steph0303
3

Answer:

Thus question is based on inverse variation.

This is because, more people doing work, takes less time for completion. Less people for work, more time for completion.

=> 56 men : 42 days :: x men : 14 days

Since it is inverse variation,

=> 56*42 = 14*x

=> 56*42/14 = x

=> 56*3 = x

=> x = 168 men

Hence if 168 men are employed, the work will be completed in 14 days.


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