Math, asked by sabina3095, 7 months ago

If 9^n×3²×(3^-n/2)-²-(27)^n/3³^m×2³=1/27 prove that m-n=1

Answers

Answered by bhainapranitsp3610
5

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

9∧n*3²*(3∧-n/2)-27/3∧3m*2∧3=1/27

3∧2n*3²*(3∧-n/2)-3³/3∧3m*2∧3=1/27

3∧2n+2-n/2-3³/3∧3m*2∧3=1/27

3∧3n+4 -33∧-3m=1/3∧3

3n+4-3m=1/3

⇒ m-n=1

Answered by arianacabello9000
0

Answer:

Hence proved—

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope it will help uh...

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