Math, asked by ramanaiahteru, 10 months ago

If (a/b) x (c/d) = 1, then (c/d) is called the ......................of (a/b)​

Answers

Answered by Anonymous
12

Step-by-step explanation:

(a/b) × (c/d) = 1

then , (c/d) is called the ''Multiplative inverse " of (a/b) .

Answered by zumba12
0

Multiplicative inverse is the perfect answer. If (a/b) x (c/d) = 1, then (c/d) is known as the multiplicative inverse of (a/b).

Multiplicative inverse is the perfect answer. If (a/b) x (c/d) = 1, then (c/d) is known as the multiplicative inverse of (a/b). Multiplicative inverse:

  • The multiplicative inverse is described because the reciprocal of a given range. It is used to simplify mathematical expressions.
  • The word 'inverse' implies something opposite/opposite in effect, order, position, or direction.
  • A range, while extended to its multiplicative inverse consequences in 1.

Step-by-step explanation:

  • The multiplicative inverse of the unit fraction 1/eight is eight.
  • If we multiply 1/eight via way of means of eight, the product is 1 (1/eight × eight = 1).
  • The multiplicative inverse of the unit fraction 1/eighty is eighty.
  • If we multiply 1/eighty via way of means of eighty, the product is 1 (1/eighty × eighty = 1).

#SPJ3

Similar questions