Math, asked by seemaverma9816, 7 months ago

If A can finish a work in n days then part of work finished in 1 day is *

1-n
n-1
none
1/n​

Answers

Answered by avinashsahu132
7

Answer:

1-n is the answer

Step-by-step explanation:

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Answered by MysteriousAryan
12

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We are given that : 'A'can finish a work in 'n' days.

i.e. The number of days taken by A to complete the whole job = n

Let we denote the whole work done by 1.

Then, the part of work finished in 1 day would be

 =  \frac{Total \: work}{Time \: taken \: to \: complete \: }

 =  \frac{1}{n}

Hence, If 'A'can finish a work in n days, then part of work finished in 1 day is

 \frac{1}{n}

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