Math, asked by parkashgaurav5005, 1 year ago

If a cauchy sequence has a convergent subsequence then prove that it is itself convergent

Answers

Answered by ayusman360
0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

can't

Answered by dearDD
1

Step-by-step explanation:

Certainly not the most elementary proof, but this one feels quite satisfying conceptually: let (X,d) be a metric space and contemplate a Cauchy sequence {xn} with a convergent subsequence, say convergent to L∈X. Now consider the completion

¯

X

of X: by definition every Cauchy sequence in

¯

X

converges, so our sequence {xn} converges in

¯

X

, say to M. But then every subsequence also converges to M and thus M=L. It follows that the original Cauchy sequence is convergent to L!

Added: Really though, the direct proof is also quite simple conceptually: you want to show that the sequence converges to L. For any fixed ϵ we know (i) all pairs of terms with sufficiently large index are within

ϵ

2

of each other, and (ii) there is at least one term of the sequence with sufficiently large index which is within

ϵ

2

of L. Apply the triangle inequality!

.

hope it helps

be happy and study well

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