Accountancy, asked by munchie, 10 months ago

If a company sells products and receives from the customer a formal written promise to pay a definite sum of money on demand or on a defined future date (or dates), the seller should debit the promised amount to Accounts Receivable.

Why is this false?

Answers

Answered by manya2802
0

beause we cant see it as a transaction nd debit until it will not paid

Answered by gaganpreetkaur03
0

Answer:

false

Explanation:

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