If a company sells products and receives from the customer a formal written promise to pay a definite sum of money on demand or on a defined future date (or dates), the seller should debit the promised amount to Accounts Receivable.
Why is this false and where would be the seller debit the promised amount?
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Explanation:
sorry I didn't understand anything sorry please
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Answer:
he becomes a debtor to the firm his name will be debited to sold goods
Explanation:
for example ,
sold goods to remesh for cash 5000.
remesh a/c. dr 5000
. .to sales a/c 5000
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