Math, asked by madhubalasingh6737, 9 months ago

If A= if inverse of the function f(x)=-x is g(x) then

Answers

Answered by kumarvipin00546
0

Step-by-step explanation:

They are not inverses. An inverse function takes the out put of the first function, and then produces an output that was the original input. So (3,5) input 3 output 5, becomes (5,3) input 5 output 3. This will be true for all values. But consider a function that assigns 0 to any input. So f(x) = 0 for all values. Now consider a function that doubles the input. So g(x) =2x.

f(g(x)) = f(2x) = 0

g(f(x)) = g(0) = 2 X 0 = 0. In this case f(g(x)) = g(f(x)). But f(x) and g(x) are not inverses. f(3) = 0, g(0) = 2 X 0 = 0 you did not get back to your original value of 3. When you have inverses g(f(x)) should = x, but in this case g(f(3) = 0 not 3.

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