Math, asked by thungchanbenit, 1 year ago

if a man can do a work at a work at 32 days in how many days will 24 men complete the same work

Answers

Answered by Lordofgod
11

Answer:

First of all

I wanna tell you that it is a problem of inverse variation

So the number of man increase and the number of days decrease

1*32=24*x

32=24x

x=32/24

x==16/12

x=8/6

x=4/3

men =32

days =4/3

Answered by agrimkumar1234
1

Answer:

Explanation:⭐

It's an inverse variation question.

Use this formula- x1×y1=x2×y2,

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Or you can use the second formula-x1/x2=y2/y1,

Where if x increases y will proportionately decrease or vice versa. That's an inverse variation.

SO I'll use the second formula.

X1/x2=y2/y1

Let x be days and y be men.

X1=32 days

Y1= 1 man

X2=x2 (we have to find this)

Y2=24 men

X1/x2=y2/y1 (second formula)

32/x2=24/1

Cross multiply now ,so we get……

24x2=32×1

Therefore x2=32/24 days.

Answer in lowest form and mix fraction:

32/24= 4/3= 1 1/3

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