if a man can do a work at a work at 32 days in how many days will 24 men complete the same work
Answers
Answer:
First of all
I wanna tell you that it is a problem of inverse variation
So the number of man increase and the number of days decrease
1*32=24*x
32=24x
x=32/24
x==16/12
x=8/6
x=4/3
men =32
days =4/3
Answer:
Explanation:⭐
It's an inverse variation question.
Use this formula- x1×y1=x2×y2,
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Or you can use the second formula-x1/x2=y2/y1,
Where if x increases y will proportionately decrease or vice versa. That's an inverse variation.
SO I'll use the second formula.
X1/x2=y2/y1
Let x be days and y be men.
X1=32 days
Y1= 1 man
X2=x2 (we have to find this)
Y2=24 men
X1/x2=y2/y1 (second formula)
32/x2=24/1
Cross multiply now ,so we get……
24x2=32×1
Therefore x2=32/24 days.
Answer in lowest form and mix fraction:
32/24= 4/3= 1 1/3