English, asked by Nancy984, 3 months ago

if a man can do a work in 32 days, in how many days will 24 men complete the
same work?

☞want a relevent answer
☞wrong answer will be reported

Answers

Answered by hemantabaruah23
1

Answer:

One man does 1/32 of the work in one day.

24 men will do 24/32 of the work in one day.

It will take 32/24, or 1 1/3 days, for 24 men to get the job done.

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Answered by Shivali2708
6

It's an inverse variation question.

Use this formula- x1×y1=x2×y2,

Or you can use the second formula-x1/x2=y2/y1,

Where if x increases y will proportionately decrease or vice versa. That's an inverse variation.

SO I'll use the second formula.

X1/x2=y2/y1

Let x be days and y be men.

X1=32 days

Y1= 1 man

X2=x2 (we have to find this)

Y2=24 men

X1/x2=y2/y1 (second formula)

32/x2=24/1

Cross multiply now ,so we get……

24x2=32×1

Therefore x2=32/24 days.

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