Question

If a man reduces the selling price of a fan from Rs. 4000 to Rs. 3800, his loss increases from x% to (x + 4)%.what is the cost price of the fan?​

Answer 1

Answer:

here is your answer

500

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the C.P. = Rs. x. 

Then First loss % =x(x−400)×100=x100x−40000%

Second loss % =x(x−380)×100=x100x−38000%

Given, x(100x−38000)−x(100x−40000)=4

⇒100x−38000−100x+40000=4x

⇒2000=4x

⇒x=500

Answer 2

Answer:

The cost price of the fan is $5000$.

Step-by-step explanation:

According to the question , a man reduces the selling price of a fan from Rs. $4000$ to Rs. $3800$ , his loss increases from x% to (x + 4)%. We need to find out the cost price of the fan.

Let the cost price of the fan is a.

According to the question ,

$a(1-\frac{x}{100} )=4000.....(i)\\\\a(1-\frac{x+4}{100})=3800.....(ii)$

$(i)/(ii)\\\\\frac{\frac{x}{100}-1 }{\frac{x+4}{100}-1 } = \frac{40}{38}\\ \\or , \frac{38x}{100} -38= \frac{40x+160}{100}-40\\ \\or , \frac{2x+160}{100} = 2\\\\or , x = 20$

$a*.80=4000\\\\or , a = 4000 * \frac{100}{80} \\\\or , a = 5000$

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