Question

If a man spends 5/6th part of money and then earns 1/2 part of the remaning money, what part of the money is with him now ?​

Answer 1

Answer:

500

because if we take 5/6 as 5000/6000 and 1/2

1000 remaining so 500 would left over

Answer 2

Answer:

$\huge\underline\bold {Answer:}$

Let the money with the man at first be 1 rupees.

Therefore money spent

= 5/6 of 1 rupees

= 5/6 rupees.

Remaining money

= (1 – 5/6)

= 1/6 rupees.

Money earned

= 1/2 of 1/6 rupees

= 1/6 rupees

Money earned

= 1/2 of 1/6 rupees

= 1/12

Therefore total money with the man

= (1/6 + 1/12)

= 3/12 rupees

= 1/4 rupees

Therefore, the man now has 1/4th of the money.