CBSE BOARD X, asked by avtarsingh946872, 8 months ago

If (a^p+1 + b^p+1)/(a^p+b^p) is the arithmetic mean between a and b prove that p=0​

Answers

Answered by ishan114780
0

Explanation:

It can be proved by mathematical induction.

The procedure for finding the arithmetic mean

(a+b)/2.

For p = 0, the following equation works perfectly and does not for any other value of P.

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