Math, asked by Pihu1230, 11 months ago

If a^x=b^y=c^x and b^2=ac prove that 1/x+1/z=2/y

Answers

Answered by uknaresh1234radhe
0

question correction it is c^z instead of c^x.

let a^x=b^y=c^z = k (where k is a any constant).

 {a}^{x}  = k

can be written as ::

a  =  {k}^{ \frac{1}{x} } .......(1)

similarly

b =  {k}^{ \frac{1}{y} } ........(2)

and

c =  {k}^{ \frac{1}{z} } ........(3)

and we have given in the question that

 {b}^{2}  = ac

can be written as :

 \frac{b}{c}  =  \frac{a}{b} ..........(4)

dividing equation 1 and 2

we have

 \frac{a}{b}  =  \frac{ {k}^{ \frac{1}{x} } }{ {k}^{ \frac{1}{y} } }

 \frac{a}{b}  =  {k}^{ \frac{1 }{x }  -  \frac{1 }{y} } .........(5)

and similarly dividing equation 2 with 3 we have :

 \frac{b}{c}  =  {k}^{ \frac{1}{y} -  \frac{1}{z}  } ..........(6)

using equation 4 and equating equation 5 and 6 we have

 {k}^{ \frac{1}{x}  -  \frac{1}{y}  }  =  {k}^{ \frac{1}{y}  -  \frac{1}{z} }

so we have:

 \frac{1}{x }  -  \frac{1}{y}  =  \frac{1}{y}  -  \frac{1}{z}

 \frac{1}{x}  +  \frac{1}{z}   =  \frac{2}{y}

hence proved .

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