Math, asked by qamarnw, 7 months ago

If bd x a/b=bd x c/d then ad=​

Answers

Answered by Anonymous
11

Step-by-step explanation:

How do you prove that if (a/b) >(c/d) then (a.d) >(b.c)?

It’s not always true. If b and d are positive, you just need to multiply both sides by bd . If they are both negative that also works. If b and d have opposite signs then you can multiply both sides by −bd . But then you get −abd/b>−bcd/d , i.e. −ad>−bc which is equivalent to ad<bc . In other words the inequality reverses if bd<0 .

#khushu☺️

Answered by priyanshi24g
2

Answer:

ad=cb

Step-by-step explanation:

bd ×a/b= bd×c/d cancelling bd in both the sides.

so, a/b=c/d

therefore, from cross multiplication ad=cb

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