Math, asked by saubhagyalll5284, 10 months ago

If C₀, C₁, C₂,..., Cn are coefficients in the binomial expression
of (1 + x)ⁿ, then C₀ C₂ + C₁ C₃ + C₂ C₄ + ... + Cn₋₂ Cn is equal to
(a) (2 n)!/((n - 2)! (n + 2)!) (b) (2 n)!/((n - 2)!)²
(c) (2 n)!/((n + 2)!)² (d) none of thes

Answers

Answered by swayamkumar987
1

Answer:

d option none of these is the correct answer

Answered by ramya2316
5

Answer:

None of these is the right answer.

Step-by-step explanation:

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