Question

if cos^2 A + sin ^2 A = 1 . then can we use cos A + sin A = 1 in proving questions ??​

Answer 1

Answer:

no surely not bcoz squares of them does not exist

Answer 2

Answer:

not at alll it will be wrong

just like in Pythagorean theorem

a² + b² = c²

is different from

a+b = c

mark me brainliest please