if cos^2 A + sin ^2 A = 1 . then can we use cos A + sin A = 1 in proving questions ??
Answers
Answered by
1
Answer:
no surely not bcoz squares of them does not exist
Answered by
1
Answer:
not at alll it will be wrong
just like in Pythagorean theorem
a² + b² = c²
is different from
a+b = c
mark me brainliest please
Similar questions