Math, asked by Studennttt, 5 months ago

if cos^2 A + sin ^2 A = 1 . then can we use cos A + sin A = 1 in proving questions ??​

Answers

Answered by YashRaj079
1

Answer:

no surely not bcoz squares of them does not exist

Answered by advik190
1

Answer:

not at alll it will be wrong

just like in Pythagorean theorem

a² + b² = c²

is different from

a+b = c

mark me brainliest please

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