Math, asked by AdithyanV, 10 months ago

If cos(alpha+beta)=0,then sin (alpha-beta) can be reduced to?

Answers

Answered by ritikajha50
1

Step-by-step explanation:

Given,

cos

(

α

+

β

)

=

0

α

+

β

=

π

2

(

cos

90

0

=

0

)

α

=

π

2

β

....(1)

Now, consider

sin

(

α

β

)

=

sin

(

π

2

β

β

)

(by (1))

=

sin

(

π

2

2

β

)

=

cos

2

β

(

sin

(

90

θ

)

=

cos

θ

)

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