Math, asked by SagarSawlani, 1 year ago

if cos(alpha +bita)=0, then sin(alpha-bita) can be reduced to?​

Answers

Answered by abhi178
4

given, cos(\alpha+\beta)=0

or, cos(\alpha+\beta)=cos\frac{\pi}{2}

or, (\alpha+\beta)=k\pi+\frac{\pi}{2}

where k is integer number.

if we assume k = 0

then, (\alpha+\beta)=\frac{\pi}{2}.......(1)

now, sin(\alpha-\beta)

= sin(\alpha+\beta-2\beta)

= sin\left(\frac{\pi}{2}-2\beta\right) [ from equation (1) ]

[ we know as well, sin(π/2 - x) = cosx ]

= cos2\beta

hence, value of sin(\alpha-\beta) can be reduced to cos2\beta

Answered by TheEmma
0

Step-by-step explanation:

cos 2 betta

hope this helps you

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