Math, asked by RSSS3394, 9 months ago

If df(x)/dx=f(x) and f(1)=2 then f(3) is equal to

Answers

Answered by sonuvuce
1

If df(x)/dx=f(x) and f(1)=2 then f(3) is equal to 2e²

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

\frac{df(x)}{dx}=f(x)

And f(1)=2

To find out:

f(3)=?

Solution:

\frac{df(x)}{dx}=f(x)

\implies \frac{df(x)}{f(x)}=dx

\implies \int \frac{df(x)}{f(x)}=\int dx

\implies \ln[f(x)]=x+c       where c is an arbitrary constant

\implies f(x)=e^{x+c}

\implies f(x)=e^x.e^c

\implies f(x)=Ce^x

f(1)=2

\implies 2=Ce^1

\implies C=\frac{2}{e}

Now

f(3)=Ce^3

\implies f(3)=\frac{2}{e}\times e^3

\implies f(3)=2e^2

Hope this answer is helpful.

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