Math, asked by lbsakashjaiswal6084, 1 year ago

If e^y (x+1) =1 then show that dy/dx = -e^y

Answers

Answered by SunilChoudhary1
10
here is your answer...
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Answered by harendrachoubay
7

\dfrac{dy}{dx} =-e^{y}, proved.

Step-by-step explanation:

We have,

e^{y} (x+1)=1        ...... (1)

To prove that, \dfrac{dy}{dx} =-e^{y}

We know that,

\dfrac{d(uv)}{dx} =u\dfrac{dv}{dx} +v\dfrac{du}{dx}

Differentiating (1) w.r.t. x, we get

\dfrac{d(e^{y} (x+1))}{dx} =\dfrac{d(1)}{dx}

e^{y} (1+0)+(x+1)e^{y}\dfrac{dy}{dx} =0

e^{y} =-(x+1)e^{y}\dfrac{dy}{dx}

1=-(x+1)\dfrac{dy}{dx}

\dfrac{dy}{dx}=-\dfrac{1}{x+1}

Using (1), we get

\dfrac{dy}{dx} =-e^{y}, proved.

Hence, \dfrac{dy}{dx} =-e^{y}, proved.

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