Math, asked by shahanab4206, 6 months ago

if f is a function from a set a to a, then f is invertible if f is

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Answered by anshuman1052
1

Answer:

For a function to have an inverse, each element y ∈ Y must correspond to no more than one x ∈ X; a function f with this property is called one-to-one or an injection. If f −1 is to be a function on Y, then each element y ∈ Y must correspond to some x ∈ X.

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