If f of x = sin inverse root x minus beta by alpha minus beta and g(x)=tan^-1 root x- beta/alpha-x then prove that f'(x)=g'(x)
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4
Answer:
Therefore since f(x) = g(x) we can say that f'(x) = g'(x). Hence it is proved.
Step-by-step explanation:
It is given that and it is also given that
So
Therefore
Therefore since f(x) = g(x) we can say that f'(x) = g'(x). Hence it is proved.
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1
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
sorry I can't answer
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