Math, asked by Roko7967, 1 year ago

If f of x = sin inverse root x minus beta by alpha minus beta and g(x)=tan^-1 root x- beta/alpha-x then prove that f'(x)=g'(x)

Answers

Answered by shailendrachoubay216
4

Answer:

Therefore since f(x) = g(x) we can say that f'(x) = g'(x). Hence it is proved.

Step-by-step explanation:

It is given that f(x) = sin^{-1} \sqrt{\frac{x- \beta}{\alpha - \beta} }   and it is also given that g(x) = sin^{-1} \sqrt{\frac{x- \beta}{\alpha -x }

So f(x) = sin^{-1} \sqrt{\frac{x- \beta}{\alpha - \beta} } = cosec^{-1} \sqrt{\frac{\alpha - \beta}{ x- \beta} } = cot^{-1}\sqrt{ (\sqrt{\frac{\alpha - \beta}{ x- \beta}})^2 -1}  = cot^{-1}\sqrt{ {\frac{\alpha - \beta}{ x- \beta}} -1

Therefore f(x) = cot^{-1}\sqrt{ {\frac{\alpha - \beta}{ x- \beta}} -1 } = cot^{-1}\sqrt{ {\frac{\alpha - x}{ x- \beta}}  } = tan^{-1}\sqrt{ {\frac{x- \beta}{\alpha - x }}  } = g(x)

Therefore since f(x) = g(x) we can say that f'(x) = g'(x). Hence it is proved.

Answered by smaranreddy2006
1

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

sorry I can't answer

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