Math, asked by dshock037, 2 months ago

If f(x) = (a – x)/n, a > 0 and n e N, then the value of f(f(x)) is
(a) 1/x
(b) x
(C) x²
(d) x½​

Answers

Answered by vivekbt42kvboy
1

Answer:

Here, f(x)=(a−x

n

)

1/n

,a>0 & n∈N

So, f(f(x))=f((a−x

n

)

1/n

)

so, put x→(a−x

n

)

1/n

f(f(x))=[a−[(a−x

n

)

1/n

]

n

]

1/n

=[a−(a−x

n

)

n/n

]

1/n

=(a−a+x

n

)

1/n

=(x

n

)

1/n

So,

f(f(x))=x

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