Math, asked by moulika38, 8 months ago

If f(x)=cos*2(x) +sin*4(x)/sin*2(x)+cos*4(x) for all x€R then show that f(2012)=1

Answers

Answered by Khushi2558
10

Sin²A+cos⁴A

=1-cos²A+(1-sin²A)²

=1-cos²A+1+sin⁴A-2sin²A

=2-2sin²A-cos²A+sin⁴A

=2(1-sin²A)-cos²A+sin⁴A

=2cos²-cos²A+sin⁴A

=cos²A+sin⁴A

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