Math, asked by paitejas72, 1 month ago

if f(x)=x^2 if x belongs from 0to1 , then P(1/2

Answers

Answered by divyanshipoona91

2

Answer:

if f(x)=x^2 if x belongs from 0to1 , then P(1/2

Previous Question

Next Question

Similar questions

Math, 23 days ago

if the graph of the polynomial intersects x axis at only one point, can it be a quadratic polynomial? justify 2+138x-35 are 2+√3 find the other zeros ...

CBSE BOARD X, 23 days ago

write the condition of the two be satisfied by q show that a rational number p-q as terminating decimal expression...

Math, 23 days ago

integration from 0 to pi/2 of cos^6 theta is...

English, 1 month ago

write an article in about 120 words on how lockdown in the times of covid 19 has affected the menta health of young people & what can be done to prevent this...

Science, 1 month ago

. How many electrons are present in N shell of Cu a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3...

Social Sciences, 9 months ago

Match the following 1.Vulture a. Vitamins 2.Bacteria b. Scavengers 3.Greenleafyvegetable c. Fats 4.Almond d. Decomposers...

Business Studies, 9 months ago

Himanshu said to Gopal, "Are you going to see the fair with my brother today?"...

Physics, 9 months ago

refracting index of the prism n = __________...