if he........... he would help me,,,,,,, was rich / were rich / is rich
Answers
Answer:
love ...... .........
See from the examples
Is the sentence "If I were rich, I would help those who are poor." grammatically correct?
Answer
1
Follow
Request
More
Ad by BYJU's
How do teachers connect with students in virtual classrooms? Is it easier or more complicated?
The pandemic raised two concerns for the student and teaching community: 1. How will learning continue? 2. What would happen to classroom
Continue reading in feed
3 Answers

Baburao Goparaju SRK, worked at English and Foreign Languages University (1974-2012)
Answered August 9, 2018
This sentence is Conditional (If) Clause Type II, which is hypothetical. It does not exist in Indian Languages. We have Type I and Type III sentences.
This given sentence means that you are not rich now. But if you are one, you will help the poor. Since in English, UNREAL expressions are made in Past Tense, we have to use Past Tense in both the clauses. It is correct to say, " If I were rich, I would help the poor." In English when you put a definite article before an adjective or nationalities, it becomes a class. So you should say 'the poor'. 'The English' means the Briish people, The Kiwis - Newzealanders.
If I were a billionaire, I would buy a Lamborghini (a very expensive car).
If I were the Prime Minister, I would help the poor more.
Type I : If I am rich, I will help the poor. (If this happens that happens. (Result is dependent upon Action and vice versa). Meaning : No riches, no help.
Type III : I had been rich, I would have helped the poor. (This is wishful thinking. Meaning I am not rich, so, i have not helped.
If I had billions, I would have bought a Lamborghini. (This is wishful thinking) Meaning : I do not have billions. So, I cannot buy such a car.
SORRY, I made it a grammar class. I wished to help you and other youngsters about this tricky item of ussge.
- ʜᴏᴘᴇ ɪᴛ ʜᴇʟᴘs