Math, asked by scs949299, 3 months ago

If log 1+x square to the base 2x square = 1 then x=?​

Answers

Answered by rajukumar762554
0

Answer:

Given x satisfies the inequality log

x+3

(x

2

−x)<1

Consider log

x+3

(x

2

−x)<1

By definition of logarithm, we have

x

2

−x<(x+3)

1

⇒x

2

−x<x+3

⇒x

2

−2x−3<0

Solving it as quadratic equation, x

2

−2x−3=0, we get (x−3)(x+1)=0

⇒x=3or−1

So our solution set is x∈(−1,3)

This is only for quadratic though. We haven't considered the number in x

2

−x must be positive for the logarithm to be denied.

Hence we have, x

2

−x>0

⇒x

2

−x=0

⇒x(x−1)=0

⇒x=0or1

If we repeat the process with test points, we realize that the solution is (−∞,0) and (1,∞). Therefore, we must eliminate (0,1) from our solution set above.

Now, we must also guarantee that x+3>0.

⇒x>−3

This means that we can include x>−3 in our solution set.

The set becomes (−3,3)

However, if you try x=−1.5 (for any number in the interval (−2,−1), you will realize that the result you get is not within the range of the problem, that's to say it will be greater, instead of less than 1).

Therefore x∈(−3,−2)∪(−1,0)∪(1,3)

A graphical verification yields the same results

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